Suppose $S=\{f_1,f_2,f_3,f_4,f_5,........\}$ where $f_i$ is a function $f:\{0, 1\}\to\mathbb{N}.$ I have to prove $S$ is countable.Then need to prove direct one-to-one correspondence between $S$ and $\mathbb{N}.$ If I put $(\{0,f(0)\},\{1,f(1)\})=(\{0,1\},\{1,1\})$ for $f_1$ map to $1,$ Similarly,$(\{0,2\},\{1,2\})$ for $f_2$ map to $2..................$$(\{0,i\},\{1,i\})$ for $f_i$ map to $i...............$
Is it showing direct bijection between $S$ and $\mathbb{N}.$ But I already proven $S$ is countable by Countability Lemma. I need to understand why my direct proof concept is wrong.
Your list of functions is incomplete: $\{(0,i), (1,i)\}$ is a constant function, but there are also functions like $\{(0,564), (1, 876)\}$; where do you map those, i.e. what number do they get?
If you want to use the countability lemma you state in the comments, you can: just assign $\max(f(0), f(1))$ to $\{(0,f(0)), (1,f(1)\} \in S$ then there are at most finitely many functions with assigned value $n$ for each $n$ (why?)..