Consider a large population of families, and suppose that the number of children in the different families are independent Poisson random variables with mean $\lambda$. Show that the number of siblings of a randomly chosen child is also Poisson distributed with mean $\lambda$.
My approach:
For any random child, if it has $k$ siblings, it implies that its parent had $k+1$ children. Hence, if $S =$ no. of siblings and if $C =$ no. of children

I'm not sure how to proceed after this. I tried evaluating the mean of S, by computing
I'm not sure where I'm going wrong and how to proceed.
EDIT: Found an answer in one of the solution manuals. Basically,
The probability of choosing a child that has $j$ siblings is the fraction of total children that have $j$ siblings.
Now, if $Z$ is the total number of families, hence the total no. of children would be $\lambda Z$. Also, if $P(j+1)$ is the probability that a family has $j+1$ children, then the no. of families with $j+1$ children is $Z \cdot P(j+1)$. Also, each of this family has $(j+1)$ children, each of whom have $j$ siblings. Hence, there are in total
children each having $j$ siblings. This divided by total number of children gives the fraction of children with $j$ siblings, i.e.
Clearly my answer is wrong in the first step itself. However I'm not able to articulate why the initial step is incorrect.





As you say, the problem is in the first step
The likelihood that a randomly chosen family has $m=k+1$ children is proportional to $e^{-\lambda} \frac{\lambda^m}{m!}$
but the likelihood that a randomly chosen child is in a family with $m$ children is proportional to $m e^{-\lambda} \frac{\lambda^m}{m!}$ since there are more children in larger families than in smaller famalies, and in particular you cannot choose a child from families with $0$ children
so the likelihood that a randomly chosen child has $k=m-1$ siblings is proportional to $(k+1) e^{-\lambda} \frac{\lambda^{k+1}}{(k+1)!} = e^{-\lambda} \frac{\lambda^{k+1}}{k!}$, which is not what you have as you have $(k+1)!$ in the denominator
This is not the exact probability unless $\lambda=1$, as taking the sum $\sum\limits_{k=0}^\infty e^{-\lambda} \frac{\lambda^{k+1}}{k!} = \lambda \not=1$, so we need to divide the expression by $\lambda$ to give the probability that a randomly chosen child is in a family with $m$ children as $e^{-\lambda} \frac{\lambda^{k}}{k!}$, as expected