I am trying to understand how to interpret the following:
If we have an unbiased coin flip and consider a head to be a "success" and a tail to be a "fail" we can interpret this as a Bernoulli experiment with p = 1/2. If we repeat n of these coin flips, which are independent we can distribute the following to a Binomial distribution.
Is a Binomial distribution n flips until the first fail? For example all of these "sequences" are valid in my problem:
'10' '0' '110' etc
but for example these are not allowed:
'01' '001' etc
If the Binomial distribution is not the following (n successes in sequence until first fail, what distribution describes this?)
Sincerly a confused statistic student.