I'm sincerely confused on this topic (the title). I was wondering if a counterexample always disproved a conjecture. I'm leaning towards true because it's not really a counterexample if it evaluates to false... right? Any insight or help would be dearly appreciated.
2026-03-30 17:07:23.1774890443
Does a counterexample always disprove a conjecture?
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A counterexample always disproves conjectures. A conjecture will suppose that something is true for different cases, but if you find an example where it is not, the conjecture must be modified to not include a particular case or rejected.