Do the definitions and properties of curve secant and tangent lead to the violation of the first postulate of Euclidean Geometry?
2026-03-30 13:37:33.1774877853
Does a curve violate the first postulate of Euclidean Geometry?
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To my knowledge, the first postulate is that given any two points, there is a line which has them as endpoints; this has little to do with curves, so how could the definition violate that? Actually, a definition in itself cannot violate any statement at all. Even
does not contradict the first postulate. However, using the first postulate we quickly arrive at