Does $o_p(1/n)$ mean when $n\rightarrow\infty$ we have an $a.s.$ convergence?

Question

If I have two functions (actually estimators), say $A_n(x)$ and $B_n(x)$, and I can prove $\sup_{x\in\mathbb{R}} |A_n(x)-B_n(x)|\leq o_p(1/n)$, can I conclude \begin{eqnarray*} \lim_{n\rightarrow\infty} \sup_{x\in\mathbb{R}}|A_n(x)-B_n(x)|=0 \; \; \; a.s. \end{eqnarray*} like that? If I can't, is there any way or lemma to prove something like this (strong conistency)? I have tried GC lemma, but it did not work, because my estimators are not step function. Thank you so much in advance