I’m in middle school (6th grade) and I have a question related to the exponential function (the teacher couldn’t help me):
We define the exponential as follows:
$$ \exp(t) = \sum_{n = 0}^{\infty} \frac{t^n}{n!}$$
For whole number inputs of $t$, this corresponds to raising $e$ to that power.
I think $\exp(t)$ converges for every possible input of $t$, but I haven’t found a proof yet. If anyone can provide a proof or disproof then that would be helpful. I would also like to know if for some $\exp(t)$ where $t \in U$, $\exp(t)$ will also be $\in U$. However, these are secondary questions and you can ignore them (but do answer if you want).
We also define $\exp(t)$ for complex numbers, and matrices.
Today I thought about the exponential of a function:
$\exp(f(t))$.
For example, let’s take $\exp(t^2)$. This would result in something like:
$\exp(t^2) = \sum_{n = 0}^{\infty} \frac{(t^2)^n}{n!} = 1 + t^2 + \frac{t^4}{2!} + \frac{t^6}{3!} + \cdots$
Which we could write as a regular polynomial as
$1 + t^2 + \frac{1}{2}t^4 + \frac{1}{6}t^6 + \frac{1}{24}t^8 + \cdots$
Another example: $\exp\left(\sin(t)\right)$:
$1 + \sin(t) + \frac{1}{2}\sin^2 (t) + \frac{1}{6}\sin^3 (t) + \cdots$
Actually, this is the same thing as raising $e$ to the power of a function. If we took $\exp(e^x)$ it would be the same as $e^{(e^x)}$:
$1 + \frac{1}{2}e^x + \frac{1}{6}e^{2x} + \cdots$
Question: Does the exponential “converge” for function inputs? Also, is there anything useful you can take away from taking the exponential of a function?
The proof may depend on the type of the input. If $t$ is a real/complex number, then convergence criteria like the ratio test may be applied (or, equivalently, calculating the radius of convergence). If $t$ is an element of some complete normed $\mathbb{R}$- (or $\mathbb{C}$-) vector space, then it suffices to show that the series is absolutely convergent (see e.g. here).
This depends on what $U$ is. For example, if $U = [1, 2]$, this is not the case, since $2 \in U$ but $\exp(2) \notin U$. Another counterexample would be $U = \mathbb{Q}$ and $t = 1$.
The exponential series $\sum_{n = 0}^\infty \frac{x^n}{n!}$ converges for every $x \in \mathbb{C}$. In particular, If we have some function $f : D \to \mathbb{C}$ and some $t \in D$, $\sum_{n = 0}^\infty \frac{f(t)^n}{n!}$ converges.
From what you wrote I think you are asking whether the resulting function will be an analytic function? This will certainly be the case if $f$ itself is an analytic function, since analytic functions are closed under composition.
I cannot really answer this part, but there are definitly cases where this is done, e.g. when solving a linear ode of first order with variable coefficients.