I would like to solve $\left\lvert 1+e^{ix}+e^{iy} \right\rvert=z$ as a function of $y$
For $z \in [0,3]$ this equation has real solutions $x,y$. The level sets are closed curves (if $z \neq 0,1,3$), see for example $z=2$:
However, if I let wolframalpha solve this equation
it calculates the solutions
$$y(x,z)= -i \log(-e^{ix} \pm 1-1).$$ If I enter this function in Mathematica and plot it, the Imaginary part is even for admissible values of $x,z$ non-zero. So something is wrong here.
By the implicit function theorem I should be able to solve this equation for example $z=2$ locally w.r.t. $y$ as a function of $x$. Why does this fail here?
Edit: Apparently, the question boils down to the question. How do I have to interpret the solution $y(x,z)$ so that this makes sense in my context?
My answer does not address the issue with WA, but shows how to obtain $y$ as a function of $x$ and parameter $z$.
Here is how: using $|z|^2=z \bar z$, your constraint can be made equivalent to:
$$(1+e^{ix}+e^{iy})(1+e^{-ix}+e^{-iy})=z^2$$
By expanding it and using Euler formula for $cosine$, we obtain:
$$3+2\cos(x)+2\cos(y)+2\cos(x-y)=z^2$$
i.e., an implicit equation:
thus with $0 \leq k \leq 3.$
I have plotted with Matlab the curves corresponding to different values of $k$ (see below).
Proof of (2): Using addition formula $\cos(x-y)=\cos(x)\cos(y)+\sin(x)\sin(y)$, (1) can be written under the form
$$\tag{3}\cos(y)(1+\cos(x))+\sin(y)\sin(x)=k-\cos(x)$$
Thanks to classical formulas :
$$\tag{4} \cos(y)=\dfrac{1-t^2}{1+t^2}, \sin(y)=\dfrac{2t}{1+t^2}$$
with
$$\tag{5} t=\tan \dfrac{y}{2},$$
(3) can be transformed into a quadratic equation with variable $t$:
$$t^2(1+k)-2t \sin(x)+(k-1-2\cos(x))=0$$
whose solutions are $t=A\left(\sin(x)\pm \sqrt{\sin(x)^2-(1+k)(k-1-2\cos(x))}\right)$
($A$ has been defined by (2)). Taking (5) into account, we obtain formulas (1).
(One should consider this picture as drawn on a torus).