The $\displaystyle\lim_{x\to \infty}\ln(x)\sin\left(\frac{1}{x}\right)$, wolfram computes it to be $1$.
However the limit of $\ln(x)$ is infinity and $\sin(1/x)$ is $0$, the product of these are undefined, am I being stupid or is this wrong?
thanks in advance.
Note that
$$\ln(x)\sin\left(\frac{1}{x}\right)=\frac{\ln(x)}{x}\, \frac{\sin\left(\frac{1}{x}\right)}{\frac1x}\to 0\cdot 1=0$$
thus
$$\lim_{x\to \infty}\ln(x)\sin\left(\frac{1}{x}\right)=0$$