I have the following function: $$f(x)=x^{\frac{x+1}{x+2}}$$ I tried to calculate the domain, which seems easy, and my result is: $D(f)=(0,\infty)$.
When I tried to calculate it, by using Wolfram-Alpha, I obtain: $D(f)=[0,\infty)$.
Can someone explain me the reason, or if it is just a Wolfram's error?
I proceed in this way: $$f(x)=x^{\frac{x+1}{x+2}} = e^{\frac{x+1}{x+2} \log(x)}$$ $$ \left\{ \begin{array}{c} x+2\ne0 \ \Rightarrow\ x\ne -2 \\ x>0 \end{array} \right. $$ Hence: $D(f)=(0,\infty)$.
The problem is on the first line of your proof. The functions $log$ and $e$ are inverse to one another, but are not both defined on all of the real line. $$ log : (0, \infty) \rightarrow \mathbb{R} $$ $$ e : \mathbb{R} \rightarrow (0 , \infty) $$ and so it is only true that, $$ e(\log(x)) = x \mbox{ , }\forall x \in (0, \infty) $$
The function $f$ itself can be defined at zero, and also at $-1$, $$ f(-1) = (-1)^{\frac{(-1)+1}{(-1) + 2}} = (-1)^{0} = 1$$