Is there an explanation of why the domain of $\arccos(x)$ is $[-1, 1]$?
2026-04-02 00:13:50.1775088830
Domain of $\arccos(x)$
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Because it is meant to be the inverse function to $\cos(x)$, which has a range of $[-1,1]$. The inverse $f^{-1}$ of a function $f$ has $f$'s codomain as its domain by definition; i.e., if $f: A \to B$ then $f^{-1} : B \to A$.