I want to consider the following matrix:
\begin{bmatrix}\boldsymbol{I}_n & \boldsymbol{I}_n \\\boldsymbol{I}_n & \boldsymbol{I}_n\end{bmatrix}By doing several numerical examples, I recognized that this matrix has $n$ eigenvalues equal to zero and $n$ eigenvalues equal to $2$. Is there any way to prove this for an arbitrary number $n$?
Hint: Write it as $$( {\bf 1}_2 {{\bf 1}_2}^T )\otimes {\bf I}_n$$Then use the results how Kronecker products inherits their factor's eigenvalues.