Maybe this is too obvious, but I what to be sure... Let $Y$ be a $p\times p$ symmetric random matrix (i.e. you can think about $Y$ as a matrix with random entries). Define $E[Y]$, the expectation of $Y$, as the matrix with entries $(E[Y])_{ij} = E[Y_{ij}]$. I think that the next affirmation is true:
If $E[Y] = 0_{p\times p}$ then $\lambda_{\max}(Y)\geq 0$ a.s., where $\lambda_{\max}(Y)$ is the greatest eigenvalue of $Y$ (which is real since $Y$ is symmetric).
My argument is as follows. Suppose that all the eigenvalues are negative. Then $tr(Y)<0$, which implies that $E[tr(Y)]<0$ and $tr(E[Y])<0$. This is a contradiction since $E[Y] = 0_{p\times p}$. Then there exist at least one non-negative eigenvalue, one of which is $\lambda_{\max}(Y)$.
Is my argument correct? In that case, is there a generalization of this result?
Consider $p=1$ and $Y$ equal to the 1x1 matrix 1 with probability 1/2 or the 1x1 matrix -1 with probability 1/2.