I have been given a problem that involves the following matrix:
$$\begin{bmatrix}-2 & 0\\0 & -2\end{bmatrix}$$
I calculated the eigenvalues to be $\lambda_{1,2} = -2$
When I go to calculate the eigenvectors I get the following system:
$$\begin{bmatrix}0 & 0\\0 & 0\end{bmatrix}\begin{bmatrix}x \\ y\end{bmatrix} = \begin{bmatrix}0 \\ 0\end{bmatrix}$$
The eigenvectors are clearly $\begin{bmatrix}1 \\ 0\end{bmatrix}$ and $\begin{bmatrix}0 \\ 1\end{bmatrix}$ and any multiple of these
But why is this? Is there a formal reasoning or method why it's only these two? Why doesn't $\begin{bmatrix}1 \\ 1\end{bmatrix}$ exist as an eigenvector?
Thank you
The eigenvalues are not $\pm1$. You might want to have another go at that.
The procedure for eigenvectors gives those two vectors. They form a basis for the eigenspace. Since they have the same eigenvalue, any linear combination of them is also an eigenvector. Including $[1,1]^T$.