I have some trouble solving the following problem:
Let $\mu, \nu$ be two measures on the Borel-$\sigma$-algebra on $\mathbb{R}$. Assume that $\mu(\mathbb{R}) = 1$. Prove that, if for all continuous, compactly supported functions $f$ on $\mathbb{R}$, $\int_{\mathbb{R}} f d\mu = \int_{\mathbb{R}} f d\nu$, then $\mu = \nu$.
It is a problem in a series of questions, where I have already proven that a similar version holds: If the quality holds for all functions $f$ such that $f$ is an indicator function on an open interval, then the measures are the same. For this I used the Dynkin Lemma. It's coming from a course about the Basics of Probability Theory. We did measure theory basics and just started with integration/Expectation of random variables, just to give you an overview of what knowledge our prof assumes we have.
My problem lies with continuity. Normally I would try to do something with simple functions, but they aren't continuous on the whole of $\mathbb{R}$. This is my first course on measure theory and I am completely stumped. Any help would be greatly appreciated.
As the comments point out, you can approximate any indicator function with continuous functions. The idea is that you just linearly interpolate by the endpoints. More specifically, to approximate $1_{(a,b)}$, we can define \begin{align*} f_n(x) := \begin{cases} 0 & x < a-\frac{1}{n} \\ n (x-a) + 1 & a-\frac 1n \le x \le a \\ 1 & a < x < b \\ n (b-x) + 1 & b \le x \le b + \frac 1n \\ 0 & x > x + \frac 1n \end{cases}. \end{align*} The functions $f_n(x)$ converge to $1_{(a,b)}(x)$ pointwise, and are all dominated by $f_1$, so by the dominated convergence theorem we have $\int f_n d\mu \rightarrow \int 1_{(a,b)}d\mu$ and $\int f_n d\nu \rightarrow \int 1_{(a,b)}d\nu$. Since each $f_n$ is continuous, this shows $\int 1_{(a,b)}d\mu = \int 1_{(a,b)}d\nu$.