$$\sum_{n=1}^\infty C_{n-1} \frac{t^n}{n!}=\sum_{n=0}^\infty C_n \frac{t^n}{n!} \sum_{m=0}^\infty \frac{t^m}{m!}$$
In the above equation is it possible to equate the coefficients of $\frac{t^k}{k!}$? Or do we need to consider $(\frac{t^k}{k!})^2$? Could you please give me an idea for this?
Equating the coefficients at equal powers of $t$ on both sides one obtains:
$$C_{n-1}=\sum_{k=0}^n\frac{n!}{k!(n-k)!}C_k.$$
The equating process goes as follows:
$$\sum_{k=0}^\infty C_k \frac{t^k}{k!} \sum_{m=0}^\infty \frac{t^m}{m!} =\sum_{k=0}^\infty C_k\frac1{k!}\sum_{m=0}^\infty \frac{t^{k+m}}{m!}\\ \stackrel{n=k+m}=\sum_{k=0}^\infty C_k\frac1{k!} \sum_{n=k}^{\infty} \frac{t^{n}}{(n-k)!} =\sum_{n=0}^\infty t^n\sum_{k=0}^n C_k \frac{1}{k!(n-k)!}\\ =\sum_{n=0}^\infty\frac{t^n}{n!}\sum_{k=0}^n C_k \frac{n!}{k!(n-k)!}.$$
The reason for the possibility of the exchange of the summation order in the second line is that both double sums run over the same set of indices: $0\le k\le n<\infty$. It can be seen also from the fact that the summation in both $\sum_{n=k}^{\infty}$ and $\sum_{k=0}^n$ formally can run from $0$ to infinity due to $(n-k)!$ term.