I need some help figuring out how these two logical statements are equivalent.
p <--> ~q == (~p && q) OR (p && -q)
I made a truth table and found that they are no equivalent BUT they are suppose to be equivalent. I tried to break both of the statements down but I'm kind of stuck here. If someone could help me out, that'd be great!
Thank you in advance.
Edit: I have to prove this using the laws of equivalence. I have attached it below. Laws of equivalence
Hint
To prove it with equivalences, we have to start "unpacking"" the LHS :
and then apply Material implication to get :