Why
$$ argmax_x \ (x^TAx )/ (x^TBx) $$
equivalent to
$$ argmax_x \ x^TAx \ s.t. \ x^TBx=1 $$
When $x\in \mathbb{R}^n; A\succeq0,B \succ0 \in\mathbb{R}^{n\times n}$
Why
$$ argmax_x \ (x^TAx )/ (x^TBx) $$
equivalent to
$$ argmax_x \ x^TAx \ s.t. \ x^TBx=1 $$
When $x\in \mathbb{R}^n; A\succeq0,B \succ0 \in\mathbb{R}^{n\times n}$
On
$$argmax_x x^TAx \ s.t. x^TBx=1 $$
Let's define $y$ following way
$$ x = \frac{y}{\sqrt{y^TBy}} $$
$$argmax_y \frac{y}{\sqrt{y^TBy}}^TA\frac{y}{\sqrt{y^TBy}} \ s.t. \frac{y}{\sqrt{y^TBy}}^TB\frac{y}{\sqrt{y^TBy}}=1 $$
$$argmax_y \frac{y^TAy}{(\sqrt{y^TBy})^2} \ s.t. \frac{y^TBy}{(\sqrt{y^TBy})^2}=1 $$
$$argmax_y \frac{y^TAy}{y^TBy} \ s.t. \frac{y^TBy}{y^TBy}=1 $$
$$argmax_y \frac{y^TAy}{y^TBy} \ s.t. 1=1 $$
$$argmax_y \frac{y^TAy}{y^TBy} \ \blacksquare $$
Based on @Peteto answer
Suppose $$ x^TAx\leq z^TAz \ \forall x \ s.t. \ x^TBx = 1.$$
Then, take $x$ and define $y = \frac{x}{\sqrt{x^TBx}}.$ Then, $y^TBy = 1$. From above, $$y^TAy \leq z^TAz.$$ Hence,
$$\frac{x^TAx}{x^TBx} \leq \frac{z^TAz}{z^TBz}, $$ as $ z^TBz= 1.$
Conversely, assume $$ \frac{x^TAx}{x^TBx} \leq \frac{z^TAz}{z^TBz} \ \forall x.$$
Define $z' = \frac{z}{\sqrt{z^TBz}}.$ Then, $z'^TBz'= 1.$ Take $x \ s.t. \ x^TBx = 1.$ Then, from above, we get $ x^TAx \leq z'^TAz'.$