All my doubts came from the following exercise:
Given
\begin{equation} f(z) = z^3 e^{-\frac{2}{z}} \end{equation}
find the singularities of the function in $\bar{\mathbb{C}}$ and specify their nature (removable, pole of order $N$, essential singularities) and the residue at these points.
Solution: $z = 0$ essential singularity, $z = \infty$ pole; $\operatorname{Res}(f(z), 0) = \frac{2}{3} = - \operatorname{Res}(f(z), \infty)$
So I started considering the expansion of $e^z$ about $0$: \begin{equation}e^z = \sum\limits_{n = 0}^{\infty}\frac{z^n}{n!}\end{equation} and then I substituted $z\to-\frac{2}{z}$ \begin{equation}e^{-\frac{2}{z}} = \sum\limits_{n = 0}^{\infty}\frac{(-1)^n2^n}{n!}\left(\frac{1}{z}\right)^n\end{equation} Multiplying everything for $z^3$ I get the function $f(z)$ expanded in Laurent series: \begin{equation}f(z) = \sum\limits_{n = 0}^{\infty}\frac{(-1)^n2^n}{n!}z^{-n+3}\end{equation}
Then considering the $c_{-1}$ coefficient I got the residues of the function in $0$: $$ \operatorname{Res}(f(z), 0) = \left(\sum\limits_{n = 0}^{\infty}\frac{(-1)^n2^n}{n!}z^{-n+3}\delta_{4}^{n}\right) = \frac{(-1)^42^4}{4!} = \frac{2}{3} $$ where $\delta_j^i$ in the Kronecker delta. Now, since a friend of mine was doing the same exercise he developed a solution expanding the function at $\infty$ and he got the same result as me, with the same sign (so wrong because $\frac{2}{3}$ should be the right in $0$, but not in $\infty$), but now I'm not sure of what I have done, since it appears to me that this expansion is not in $0$ but in $\infty$, so $\frac{2}{3}$ should be the residue of $f(z)$ at $\infty$ and not in $0$ (as my expansion is valid at $\infty$, since is $e^{-\frac{2}{z}}$.
Last I tried computing with Mathematica the series and the result and I got:
Basically Mathematica in $0$ is not computing results, while in $\infty$ it's giving me the same series that I thought I get in $0$, but the residue computed at $\infty$ is the same that I got with my calculations.
What's going on? Am I calculating the series in $\infty$ without knowing? And if it's so, how is it possible that the residue at $\infty$ is the opposite of the $c_{-1}$ at $\infty$?

What you did to compute the residue at $0$ is correct.
The residue at $\infty$ is$$-\operatorname{res}_0\left(\frac1{z^2}f\left(\frac1z\right)\right)=-\operatorname{res}_0\left(\frac1{z^2}\cdot\frac1{z^3}e^{-2z}\right)=-\operatorname{res}_0\left(\frac{e^{-2z}}{z^5}\right)=-\frac23.$$