I need some help in trying to prove the following identity $$\sum_{k = 1}^{\infty} \frac{1}{(2k)^{2}} + \sum_{k=1}^{\infty} \frac{1}{(2k-1)^{2}} = \sum_{k = 1}^{\infty} \frac{1}{k^{2}}$$
I'm not sure where to start really. I thought it was going to be as simple as just adding the two terms together but nothing comes of that....
$$\sum_{k = 1}^{\infty} \frac{1}{(2k)^{2}} + \sum_{k=1}^{\infty} \frac{1}{(2k+1)^{2}} = \sum_{k = 1}^{\infty} \frac{1}{k^{2}}$$
Note that every natural number $n$ is either even which is $n=2k$ or it is odd, that is $n=2k+1$
So we can partition the set of $$\left\{\frac {1}{n^2} : n\in \mathbb {N}\right\} $$ into two sets namely $$\left\{\frac {1}{(2k+1)^2} : k\in \mathbb {N}\right\} $$ and $$\left\{\frac {1}{(2k)^2} :k\in \mathbb {N}\right\} $$ Thus $$\sum_{k = 1}^{\infty} \frac{1}{(2k)^{2}} + \sum_{k=1}^{\infty} \frac{1}{(2k+1)^{2}} = \sum_{n= 1}^{\infty} \frac{1}{n^{2}} = \sum_{k= 1}^{\infty} \frac{1}{k^{2}} $$