As an economist trying to learn probability theory, I have become quite confused regarding some of the essentials of Lebesgue integration.
Say we are working with a Lebesgue integral for a non-negative measurable function $f$ on a measure space $(X,E,u)$ with the usual definition:
$$\int_{X}^{}f\,du$$
Intuitively, I understand the above to be the area under the graph of $f(X)$, where the x-axis is "represented" by the measure $u$. Let's say we wanted to calculate a sub-section of this area. It is then common to see something ala:
$$\int_{X}^{}f(x)1_{A}\,du=\int_{A}^{}f(x)\,du$$
where $A \in E$. But what does $\int_{A}^{}f(x)\,du$ actually mean? Is this the integral on $f(x)$ defined on a new measure space $(A,E,u)$? I am especially confused by this, when we start delving into probability theory, where the above integrals would equate to $E[X]$. Here it does not seem possible to me to change the underlying probability space, as I understand $(\Omega, \mathbb{F}, \mathbb{P})$ to be somewhat "fixed".
Any intuition or explanation of above would be much appreciated!
Fix a measure space $(X,\mathcal M,\mu)$ and let $A \in \mathcal M$.
You can define a new measure space $(A,\mathcal M_A,\mu_A)$ by defining $$\mathcal M_A = \{E \cap A \mid E \in \mathcal M\}$$ and $$\mu_A(E) = \mu(A \cap E), \quad E \in \mathcal M_A.$$
If $f : X \to \mathbb R$, we can define $f|_A : A \to \mathbb R$ by restriction: $f|_A(x) = f(x)$ for all $x \in A$.
It is just a matter of checking definitions to see that $\mathcal M_A$ is a $\sigma$-algebra, $\mu_A$ is measure on $(A,\mathcal M_A)$, $f|_A$ is $\mu_A$-measurable if and only if $f \cdot 1_A$ is $\mu$-measurable, and that $$\int_X f \cdot 1_A \, d\mu = \int_A f|_A \, d\mu_A$$ whenever either integral exists.
The common value is denoted $\displaystyle \int_A f \, d\mu$, and is almost universally defined to be equal to the left-hand side of the equality above.