Let $b(k,M)$ be a real sequence such that for any $k$, $b(k,M)\in [-M,M]$. I know that
- $\lim_{M\to+\infty} \sup_{k\geq0} |b(k,M)-a(k)|=0 $, meaning that $b(k,M)$ converges to $a(k)$ when $M\to+\infty$ uniformly in $k$.
- There exists $\lim_{k\to+\infty} a(k)=L\in \mathbb{R}$.
I want to prove that $\lim_{k\to +\infty} \lim_{M\to+\infty} b(k,M)\geq \lim_{M\to+\infty} \liminf_{k\to+\infty} b(k,M)$. If I knew that for any $M$ (or definitely in $M$) the limit $\lim_{k\to +\infty}b(k,M)$ was well defined, then I would actually have the equality in the previous inequality due to the uniform convergence. But since I don't know if $\lim_{k\to+\infty} b(k,M)$ exists, I would be satisfied with the inequality.
Assuming $|b(k,M)|\le M$ is useless. Under your two other hypothesis
let us define $$c(M):=\liminf_{k\to+\infty}b(k,M)$$ and prove that $\lim_{M\to\infty}c(M)$ exists, and is not only $\le L$ but $=L$: $$\lim_{M\to+\infty}c(M)=L.$$
Let $\epsilon>0$. From the two hypothesis, we derive $$\forall M\ge M_\epsilon\quad\forall k\ge k_\epsilon\quad b(k,M)\in[L-2\epsilon,L+2\epsilon]$$ hence $$\forall M\ge M_\epsilon\quad\forall j\ge k_\epsilon\quad c(j,M):=\inf_{k\ge j}b(k,M)\in[L-2\epsilon,L+2\epsilon]$$ and therefore $$\forall M\ge M_\epsilon\quad c(M)=\lim_{j\to\infty}c(j,M)\in[L-2\epsilon,L+2\epsilon],$$ which ends the proof.