I was looking at potential theorems, and this one came up:
$$\bigg(\exists x ~ \forall y ~:~ f(x, y) \bigg) \iff \bigg(\forall y() ~ \exists x ~:~ f(x, y(x))\bigg)$$
(where the second $y$ is being quantified over all total unary functions)
Does this proposition have a name? It is a generalization of
$$(a_{00} \land a_{01}) \lor (a_{10} \land a_{11}) \iff (a_{00} \lor a_{10}) \land (a_{00} \lor a_{11}) \land (a_{01} \lor a_{10}) \land (a_{01} \lor a_{11})$$
I'm not even sure which higher order axioms I would use to prove it. Any references or suggestions for proofs or criticisms of the theorem are welcome.
Consider the dual statement: $$ \forall x \exists y\, R(x,y) \iff \exists f \forall x\, R(x, f(x)). $$ (I've used more typical variables in stating it; no good purpose is served by using "$y$" as a variable for two different sorts of things.) This is essentially the Axiom of Choice (AC), and is provable using AC. $f$ is called a uniformizing function for $R$. If further constraints are placed on $R$ and $f$ (such as, "$R, f$ are $\Pi^1_1$", or "$R, f$ are projective"), it may or may not hold in a theory (and may or may not be provable even in ZFC). See the wikipedia article on uniformization for more.