I am having a hard time translating implications from English to logic. It seems that a lot of the time, $P {\implies}Q$ is the same as $Q {\implies}P.$
“You cannot ride the roller coaster if you are under $4$ feet tall unless you are older than $16$ years old.” Let $X, Y,$ and $Z$ represent “You can ride the roller coaster,” “You are under $4$ feet tall,” and “You are older than $16$ years old,” respectively. Then the sentence can be translated to
$(Y \wedge \neg Z) \implies ¬X$
“You can access the Internet from campus only if you are a computer science major or you are not a freshman.” We let $A, C,$ and $F$ represent “You can access the Internet from campus,” “You are a computer science major,” and “You are a freshman,” respectively. Noting that “only if” is one way a conditional statement can be expressed, this sentence can be represented as
$A \implies (C \vee \neg F )$.
Why can't we say $(C \vee \neg F ) \implies A$? These English sentences both seem to say "you can/cannot access a particular thing if you meet / don't meet certain requirements", yet the goal $A$ is on the left hand side for the first example while the goal $\neg X$ is on the right hand side for the second example. I have looked around for answers but nothing has seemed to clear this up for me. It seems like you could reverse the implications. How do I know that it is $P {\implies}Q$ instead of $Q {\implies}P$?
This is, as Element118 has said, due to the difference between "if" and "only if" which is annoying to wrap your head around at first, but makes sense once you get it. The point is that the sentences
if $P$ then $Q$
and
$P$ only if $Q$
are two ways of representing the same thing. They both can be expressed as
$P\implies Q$
so it's really just a subtlety of the language used. If I misunderstood and that's not where your problem lies, just let me know and I'll update this answer