I'm having some trouble figuring out the right way of approaching the following problem.
You draw 2 cards from a standard deck of 52. This contains 13 of hearts, diamond, clubs and spades: clubs and spades are black, hearts and diamonds are red. What is the expected number of red cards chosen?
My current attempt is using the summation formula given in the lectures. I'm not sure how to write it in here properly though. Basically the summation of x*p(x) from x=0 to x=2. Where x is the number of red cards drawn.
This gives me 0*(1/2*25/51)+1*(1/2*26/51)+2*(1/2*25/51) = 0.745, however I feel that this is wrong as I would've thought the answer would be much closer to 1.
I feel like I'm supposed to be doing the probabilities differently, i.e. p(x=1) should be both red/black and black/red, and p(x=2) should be doubled. At this point I've messed around with the options so much I'm not really sure which is right or wrong.
If someone could check over this and give some insight as to what I'm missing it would be appreciated.
Thanks.
Let's define the pdf, saying that $x$ is the number of red cards:
$$p(x) = \begin{cases} \frac{26}{52}\cdot\frac{25}{51} = \frac{25}{102}& \text{if}~x=0\\ \left(\frac{26}{52}\cdot\frac{26}{51} + \frac{26}{52}\cdot\frac{26}{51}\right) = \frac{52}{102}& \text{if}~x=1\\ \frac{26}{52}\cdot\frac{25}{51} = \frac{25}{102}& \text{if}~x=2 \end{cases}$$
Then:
$$\mathbb{E}[x] = \sum_{x=0}^2 xp(x) = \\ = 0\cdot\frac{25}{102}+1\cdot\frac{52}{102} + 2\cdot\frac{25}{102} = \\ = \frac{52+50}{102} = 1,$$
which, as you expected, is exactly $1$.
Indeed, you were wrongly evaluating $p(x=1)$, because:
OR
At the end, $p(x=1) = \frac{26}{52}\cdot\frac{26}{51}+\frac{26}{52}\cdot\frac{26}{51} = \frac{26}{51}$.