Expectation of number of balls drawn when it depends on the amount of green balls drawn on the last step

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We have 60 green balls and 40 white balls in an urn.

Let $X_n$ be the number of balls drawn on step n defined as $ X_1 = 10 $ and $X_n =$ the number of green balls drawn in step $n-1$. The balls are then returned to the urn.

I need to calculate $\mathbb{E}(X_n)$ and show that $\lim_{n \to +\infty} \mathbb{E}(X_n) = 0 $. Suggestion: Find a suitable r.v. to condition $X_n$.

Intuitively it makes sense to me that the limit would be 0 since with high probability we're drawing each balls each time but I can't seem to find anything not convoluted for $\mathbb{E}(X_n)$.


Here's my work:

Let $Y_n$ be the amount of green balls drawn in step n. So we have that $X_n = Y_{n-1}$. $X_2 = Y_1 \sim Bi(10,0.6)$ so $\mathbb{E}(X_2) = 6$.

In general $\mathbb{E}(X_n) = \sum_{k=0} ^{10} k \frac{6}{10} P(Y_{n-2} = k)$

But I'm not sure how to go forward since each step depends on all the steps before and it gets very convoluted.

Any help would be greatly appreciated.

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The idea is the same as in this other answer. Instead of drawing only as many green balls as were drawn previously, perform the following operation ten times: draw until you get a white ball. Given this scheme, the probability that you get to step $n$, where you then draw a green ball, is $(3/5)^n$, so the expected number of green balls drawn in step $n$ of the original formulation is $10(3/5)^n$, i.e. $E(X_n)=10(3/5)^{n-1}$. It is clear that this goes to zero as $n\to\infty$.