Suppose $v_1,v_2,...,v_n$ are $n$ i.i.d. continuous random variables with the range $[\underline v,\bar v]$, does the expectation of the maximum of the random variables $E[\max v_i, i=1,2,\dots,n]$ go to $\bar v$ as $n$ goes to infinity?
Thanks guys!
The CDF of $Y_n=\max_{1\le i\le n}\{v_i\}$ is
$$F_{Y_n}(t)=[F_v(t)]^n\rightarrow 1\{t=\bar v\}\text{ as }n\rightarrow \infty$$
which means that $Y_n\xrightarrow{d} \bar v$.Using the a.s. representation there is a sequence $\{Y_n'\}$ where each $Y_n'$ has the same distribution as $Y_n$ and $Y_n'\xrightarrow{a.s}\bar v$. Since $|Y_n'|\le |\underline v|\vee|\bar v|$, the bounded convergence theorem implies that
$$\lim_{n\rightarrow\infty}\mathbb{E}Y_n'=\mathbb{E}\lim_{n\rightarrow\infty}Y_n'=\bar v$$
Alternatively, since $Y_n\le\bar v$ a.s. and for any $\epsilon>0$
$$\sum_{n=1}^\infty P\{Y_n\le \bar v-\epsilon\}=\sum_{n=1}^\infty [F_v(\bar v-\epsilon)]^n<\infty$$ $Y_n\xrightarrow{a.s.}\bar v$ and the same argument (about expectations) applies to $Y_n$ directly.