I am very puzzled as to how they arrived at μ=2/5 in this example. I understand that μ is just expected value which would mean summing x or y with its possible realizations, but if x and y are max. 1, and integrating f_x(x) just gives us 1, wouldn't EV also be 1 then? This seems very obvious, however, I just can't see how they arrived at 2/5, which just proves I conceptually don't really understand it.. Any hints/help would be greatly appreciated?
2026-03-29 21:22:22.1774819342
Expected Value in joint probability distributions
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