$$\ln2 = 1 - \frac{1}{2} + \frac{1}{3} - \frac{1}{4} + \cdots = (1 + \frac{1}{2} + \frac{1}{3} + \frac{1}{4} + \cdots) - 2(\frac{1}{2} + \frac{1}{4} + \cdots)$$ $$= (1 + \frac{1}{2} + \frac{1}{3} + \frac{1}{4} + \cdots) - (1 + \frac{1}{2} + \frac{1}{3} + \frac{1}{4} + \cdots) = 0$$
thanks.
It's because the series for ln2 is conditionally convergent. (see also Riemann's rearrangement theorem)