As an example of a continuous function that needs not map open sets to open sets, our professor exhibited the identity map:
$$ 1_{x}:(X, \mathcal{T}) \to (X, \mathcal{O})$$ $$ x \mapsto x$$
when $\mathcal{O}$ is a proper subset of $\mathcal{T}$, but I'm not sure I understand why.
Could someone please explain this to me?
If $x \in \mathcal{T}$ but is not in $\mathcal{O}$, it seems to me that it could be mapped to $\emptyset$, which is always open. Or would this then contradict the fact that it's the identity map, and thus, $x$ needs to be mapped to itself?
I'm possibly overthinking this, but humor me anyway.
$1_{x}$ is the identity map so in particular it maps every subset to itself.
A map is continuous if and only if the inverse image of any open set is open. If $U \in \mathcal{O}$ then since $\mathcal{O} \subset \mathcal{T}$ we must have $U \in \mathcal{T}$ so $1_x$ is continuous.
On the other hand since $\mathcal{O}$ is a proper subset of $\mathcal{T}$, there exists $T \in \mathcal{T} \setminus \mathcal{O}$.
Then $T$ is the inverse image under $1_x^{-1}$ of an open set, yet it fails to be open. So $1_x^{-1}$ is not continuous.