I recently posted an answer to a question about ways to express the factorial function as a sum. I posted the following formula, which I discovered several years ago and I haven't seen anywhere else:
$n!=\displaystyle\sum_{k=1}^n \binom{n}{k} (-1)^{n+k} k^n$
I never took the time to find a proof, and I couldn't come up with any obvious explanation, but it certainly works. It would be interesting if anyone with decent math skills (that is, better than me) could shed some light on it (provide a proof, or a clue on why it works).
I also made a brief attempt to generalize it into a series for non-integer $n$ (analogously to Newton's generalization of the Binomial Theorem) hoping to end up with the gamma function, but that seemed either impossible or above my skills.
$$n!=f(n)=\sum_{k=1}^n \binom{n}{k} (-1)^{n+k} k^n,\quad n\in\mathbb N$$ A better way to include $0$: $$n!=f_2(n)=\sum_{k=0}^n(-1)^k\binom nkk^n=\sum_{k=0}^n(-1)^k\binom nk(n-k)^n$$ Given $n$ boxes and $n$ balls, how much different ways there're to put the $n$ balls into the $n$ boxes and none of the first $n$ boxes is empty? Using Inclusion-Exclusion Principle, the result is the leftside of the equation. And it is obvious the result is $n!$ too.