Let $X$ and $Y$ be two independent uniform on $(0,1)$ . Compute $E(X \mid X < Y )$.
I was asked this question on an exam and here is how I solved it:
We have $f_X(x)=f_Y(y)=1$ and by independence $f_{X,Y}(x,y)=1$. Hence,
$$ f_{X \mid Y} (x \mid y) = \frac{ f_{X,Y}(x,y)}{f_{Y}(y) } = 1 $$
So,
$$ E(X \mid X < Y) = \int\limits_0^y x f_{X \mid Y} (x \mid y) d x = \int\limits_0^y x dx = \frac{y^2}{2} $$
I think my answer is reasonable. I only got 2 points out of 10 on this question which means the entire procedure is flawed? what is my mistake here?
Concerning your mistake see the comment of StubbornAtom.
Note that $P(X<Y)=\frac12$ by symmetry, so that:
$$\frac{1}{2}\mathbb{E}\left(X\mid X<Y\right)=\mathbb{E}\left(X\mid X<Y\right)P\left(X<Y\right)=\mathbb{E}X\mathbf{1}_{X<Y}=\int_{0}^{1}\int_{0}^{y}xdxdy=$$$$\int_{0}^{1}\frac{1}{2}y^{2}dy=\left[\frac{1}{6}y^{3}\right]_{0}^{1}=\frac{1}{6}$$
So the correct answer is: $$\mathbb{E}\left(X\mid X<Y\right)=\frac{1}{3}$$