Define
$$A_n= \begin{cases} \left ( \frac{1}{2}-\frac{1}{2n},1+\frac{1}{2n}\right )& \text{ if n is odd } \\ \left ( \frac{1}{2n},\frac{3}{4}-\frac{1}{2n} \right )& \text{ if n is even } \end{cases}$$ Find $\liminf _{n \to \infty}A_n $ and $\limsup_{n \to \infty}A_n $
$\limsup_{n \to \infty}A_n= \cap_{n=1}^{\infty}(\cup_{n\le N})$
$\liminf _{n \to \infty}A_n=\cup_{n=1}^{\infty}(\cap_{n\le N})$
$A_1=\left ( 0,1+ \frac{1}{2}\right )\\ A_2=\left ( \frac{1}{4}, \frac{1}{2}\right )\\ A_3=\left (\frac{1}{3},1+ \frac{1}{6}\right )$
Can you help someone here i'm confusing
A good way to think is like this:-
1.Lim sup of a sequence of sets $A_{n}$ is the set of all $x$ such that $x\in A_{n}$ for infinitely many $n$.
2.Lim inf of $A_{n}$ is the set of all $x$ such that $x\in A_{n}$ for all but finitely many $n$.
you see that all $x\in [\frac{1}{2},1]$ . It lies in $A_{n}$ for all odd $n$. and all $x\in (0,\frac{3}{4})$ lies in $A_{n}$ for infinitely many even integers $n$.
So $\lim\sup A_{n}=[\frac{1}{2},1]\cup (0,\frac{3}{4})=(0,1]$.
Now only $x$ such that $x\in[\frac{1}{2},\frac{3}{4})$ lies in $A_{n}$ for all but finitely many $n$. So $\lim\inf A_{n}=[\frac{1}{2},\frac{3}{4})$.