I have that following expression:
$$ f(q) = log_2(q^q \cdot (n-q+1)^{n-q+1}) $$
The solution says it has a min at
$$ q = (n+1)/2 $$
Is there a strait way to get to this min?
When i try to take the derivate it becomes complicated (or i miss something)?
Anyway, how did they get to this min?
$$f(q)=\log_2(q^q \cdot (n-q+1)^{n-q+1} )\\ = q\log_2 q + (n-q+1)\log_2 (n-q+1)$$
$$f’(q) = q\cdot \frac 1q + \log _2 (q) \frac{1}{\ln 2} - (n-q+1) \cdot \frac{1}{n-q+1} - \log_2(n-q+1) \frac{1}{\ln 2}=0 \\ \implies \log_2(q) = \log_2(n-q+1) \\ \implies q=\frac{n+1}{2}$$