The random variable Z is equal to X + Y. Where X and Y are independent and they both are exponentially distributed with parameter $\lambda = 1$;
How do i find the probability density function of Z? Firstly i searched about this and I've found about convolution yet I don't manage to apply it properly?
$$F_Z(z) = \int_{-\infty}^{\infty}F_X(x)F_Y(z-x) dx$$ And from this i go to
$$\int_{0}^{\infty}e^{-x}e^{-(z-x)}dx = \int_{0}^{\infty}e^{-z}e^{-x+x}dx = \int_{0}^{\infty}e^zdx = xe^{-z}|_0^{\infty}$$ which seems clearly wrong??
How can i solve it? Can this be solved in the following way : find the common distribution function and use the derivates of it to get to the density function?
Could really use some references to consult as well!
Thank you!
You are provided that the distributions are exponential: $f_X(x)= \mathsf e^{-x}\mathbf 1_{x\geqslant 0}\\ f_Y(y)= \mathsf e^{-y}\mathbf 1_{y\geqslant 0}$
Where the support is indicated using an indicator : $~\mathbf 1_{Q}=\begin{cases}1 & \textsf{if}& Q\textsf{ is true}\\0 &:&\textsf{otherwise}\end{cases}$
The convolution is thus $$\begin{split}f_Z(z) &= \int_{-\infty}^{\infty} f_X(x)\cdot f_Y(z-x)~\mathsf d x \\ &= \int_{-\infty}^{\infty} \mathsf e^{-x}\mathbf 1_{x\geqslant 0}\cdot \mathsf e^{-(z-x)}\mathbf 1_{(z-x)\geqslant 0}~\mathsf d x\\ &= \int_{-\infty}^{\infty} \mathsf e^{-z+x-x}\mathbf 1_{0\leqslant x}\mathbf 1_{x\leqslant z}~\mathsf d x \\ & = \mathsf e^{-z}\mathbf 1_{0\leqslant z}\cdot\int_0^z\mathsf d x \\ & = z\,\mathsf e^{-z}\mathbf 1_{0\leqslant z} \end{split}$$
In short: Always be careful about the support of the distribution.