Background Information: Inside the game of craps, one of the most notorious bets, the fire bet, is known for being exceptionally complicated and hard to win. In order to hit the fire bet, every number must be made as a point. This means that the shooter must roll a number, and then continue to roll until he roles that number again; however, he roles a 7 before he roles the number a second time, the bet is lost. The goal of the shooter is to do this for the 4, 5, 6, 8, 9, and 10.
Question: What are the Odds of a shooter making this Fire Bet?
My Attempt at a solution (Wrong): First, I will try to find the odds of rolling a four before rolling a seven. $\sum_{x=0}^\infty P(4) * P(Anything But 4 or 7)^x$ Then, I will find the probability of rolling a 5 before a 7 and a 6 before a 7. (8, 9, 10 share the same exact probabilities as 4, 5, and 6.)
$$\sum_{x=0}^\infty P(4) * P(Anything But 4 or 7)^x$$
$$\sum_{x=0}^\infty P(5) * P(Anything But 5 or 7)^x$$
$$ \sum_{x=0}^\infty P(6) * P(Anything But 6 or 7)^x$$
This is equal to 1/3, 2/5, and 5/11 respectively.
$$ \sum_{x=0}^\infty \frac{1}{12} * \frac{3 }{4}^x = \frac{1}{3} $$ $$ \sum_{x=0}^\infty \frac{1}{9} * \frac{13}{18} ^x = \frac{2}{5} $$ $$ \sum_{x=0}^\infty \frac{5}{36} * \frac{25}{36} ^x = \frac{5}{11} $$
Now, I can start putting together the final answer, which ended being incorrect. The shooter must shoot a 4 ($\frac{1}{12}$) and then shoot the 4 again before a 7 ($\frac{1}{3}$). The probability of making the four is $\frac{1}{12} * \frac{1}{3}$. We can now do the same for the 5, 6, 7, 8, 9, and 10. This leaves us with the final answer, which ended up being incorrect.
$$(\frac{1}{12} * \frac {1}{3}) * (\frac{1}{9} * \frac{2}{5}) * (\frac{5}{36} * \frac{5}{11}) * (\frac {5}{36} * \frac{5}{11}) * (\frac{1}{9} * \frac{2}{5}) * (\frac{1}{12} * \frac{1}{3}) $$
This gives us the final answer of $\frac{5}{8019}$ ; however, this answer is completely wrong. Can someone help me spot my mistake?
(Please note that the first set of computations that yield the answer $\frac{1}{3}$ , $\frac{2}{5}$ , and $\frac{5}{11}$ are correct, but the final answer is not correct. Thank You.)
The answer I got isn't correct.
This looks like a long calculation.
Let's look at the probability just for making the points $4,5,6,8,9,10$ in that order without ever have a seven-out on a point:
$\frac{\frac{3}{24}}{1-\frac{3}{24}\frac{3}{9}-\frac{4}{24}\frac{4}{10}-\frac{5}{24}\frac{5}{11}-\frac{5}{24}\frac{5}{11}-\frac{4}{24}\frac{4}{10}}$
You multiply all those together and get a very small number. Then you do the same for the other $6!-1$ permutations. Then add them all up.
Here is some R code that does that:
then going through the six points
and those final figures seem to be the same as values published by Mark Bollman and Michael Shackleford