This is a problem from the book of Kaczor & Nowak (Version II).
In the hint part, they find the radius of convergence by calculating the limsup of $(2^{n^2})^{1 \over n!}$. But I am unable to understand why not limsup of $(2^{n^2})^{1 \over n}$?
Can anybody please tell me how to find the radius of convergence of this kind of power series where the power of $x$ is not $n$ (or power of $x$ is an injective function of $n$) with a rigorous analytical argument?
2026-03-26 23:10:47.1774566647
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Find the radius of convergence of the power series $\sum_{n=1}^\infty 2^{n^2} \: x^{n!}$
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Well, $x^{n!} = 2^{n!\log(x)}$ which for $x<1$ is $2^{-an!}$ for some positive $a(x)=a$ that is independent of $n$.
Note that for any such $a$, the function $an!$ dominates $n^2$ for $n$ large.
MEanwhile 0 raised to any positive power is 0.
Furthermore, one can check that if the sum converges for $x \in [0,1)$ then it also converges for $-x$.
On the other hand, $n!$ is even for all $n \geq 2$. So clearly this diverges for $x=-1$. (And clearly this diverges for $x \ge 1$.)
So the sum converges for all $x \in (-1,1)$. Thus the radius of convergence is 1.
Just write the power series in the form $\sum_{n=0}^\infty a_nx^n$. In this case we have
$$a_n = \begin{cases} 2^{k^2}, & \text{if $n = k!$} \\ 0, & \text{otherwise} \end{cases}$$
so
$$\frac1{R} = \limsup_{n\to\infty} {a_n}^{\frac1n} = \limsup_{k\to\infty} {a_{k!}}^{\frac1{k!}} = \limsup_{k\to\infty} {\left(2^{k^2}\right)}^{\frac1{k!}} = \limsup_{k\to\infty} 2^{\frac{k^2}{k!}} = 1$$
because we took the limsup of the only nontrivial subsequence of ${a_n}^{\frac1n}$, which is ${a_{k!}}^{\frac1{k!}}$ .