Please consider the following problem and my solution to it:
Problem:
Let $(X,Y)$ be a continues bivariate r.v. with joint pdf
\begin{eqnarray*}
f_{XY}(x,y) &=& \begin{cases}
e^{-(x+y)} & x > 0 , y > 0 \\
0 & \text{otherwise} \\
\end{cases} \\
\end{eqnarray*}
Find the joint moment generating function of $X$ and $Y$.
Answer:
\begin{eqnarray*}
M_{XY} &=& E(e^{t_1 X} + e^{t_2 Y}) \\
M_{XY} &=&
\int_{0}^{\infty} \int_{0}^{\infty} (e^{t_1 x} + e^{t_2 y})(e^{-(x+y)}) \, dy \, dx \\
M_{XY} &=&
\int_{0}^{\infty} \int_{0}^{\infty}
e^{t_1x - x - y} + e^{t_2y - x - y} \, dy \, dx \\
M_{XY} &=&
\int_{0}^{\infty}
-e^{t_1x - x - y} - \frac{ e^{t_2y -x - y} }{t_2-1} \Big|_{y = 0}^{y = \infty} \, dx \\
M_{XY} &=& \int_{0}^{\infty}
( -0 + 0) - ( -e^{t_1x - x} - \frac{e^ { -x } }{t_2-1} ) \, dx \\
M_{XY} &=& \int_{0}^{\infty} e^{(t_1-1)x} + \frac{ e^{-x}}{t_2-1} \, dx \\
M_{XY} &=&
\frac{e^{(t_1-1)x}}{{t_1-1}} - \frac{ e^{ -x } } {t_2-1}
\Big|_{x = 0}^{x = \infty} \\
M_{XY} &=& ( 0 + 0 ) - ( \frac{1}{t_1 - 1} - \frac{1}{t_2 - 1}) \\
M_{XY} &=& \frac{1}{t_2 - 1} - \frac{1}{t_1 - 1} \\
M_{XY} &=& \frac{ t_1 - 1 - ( t_2 - 1 ) }{ (t_1 - 1)(t_2 - 1) } \\
M_{XY} &=& \frac{ t_1 - t_2 }{ (t_1 - 1)(t_2 - 1) } \\
\end{eqnarray*}
However, the book gets:
\begin{eqnarray*}
M_{XY} &=& \frac{1}{ (1 - t_1)(1 - t_2) } \\
\end{eqnarray*}
Please note that my answer could be rewritten as:
\begin{eqnarray*}
M_{XY} &=& \frac{t_1-t_2}{ (1 - t_1)(1 - t_2) } \\
\end{eqnarray*}
What did I do wrong?
Thanks,
Bob
2026-03-25 14:28:54.1774448934
On
Finding a Joint Moment Generating Function
12.2k Views Asked by Bumbble Comm https://math.techqa.club/user/bumbble-comm/detail At
2
There are 2 best solutions below
1
On
You seek $$\begin{align}\mathsf M_{X,Y}(s,t) &= \mathsf E(\mathrm e^{sX+tY}) \\ &= \mathsf E(\mathrm e^{sX}~\mathrm e^{tY})\\ &=\mathsf E(\mathrm e^{sX})~\mathsf E(\mathrm e^{tY}) & \star\\ & =\mathsf M_X(s)~\mathsf M_Y(t)\end{align}$$
$\star~$ Since $f_{X,Y}(x,y)=\mathrm e^{-x}\mathrm e^{-y} \mathbf 1_{x\geq 0}\mathbf 1_{y\geq 0}$ indicates that the random variables are independent, and infact something. Show this to be so, and thus use the MGF for that distribution to find the joint MGF.
What is wrong is your expression for the MGF. It should be $$ M_{XY}(t_1,t_2) = \mathbb{E}[e^{\big\langle \begin{pmatrix} t_1\\t_2\end{pmatrix},\begin{pmatrix} X\\Y\end{pmatrix} \big\rangle}] = \mathbb{E}[e^{t_1X+t_2Y}] \tag{$\dagger$} $$ not $\mathbb{E}[e^{t_1X}+e^{t_2Y}]$ (which, by linearity, would always be equal to $\mathbb{E}[e^{t_1X}]+\mathbb{E}[e^{t_2Y}]$—this should strike you as strange).
Using the expression from $(\dagger)$, you 'll get, for $t_1,t_2<1$, $$\begin{align} M_{XY}(t_1,t_2) &= \int_{0}^\infty \int_{0}^\infty dxdy e^{t_1x+t_2y}e^{-(x+y)} = \int_{0}^\infty \int_{0}^\infty dxdy e^{(t_1-1)x}e^{(t_2-1)y}\\ &= \int_{0}^\infty dx e^{(t_1-1)x} \int_{0}^\infty dye^{(t_2-1)y} = \frac{1}{1-t_1} \cdot \frac{1}{1-t_2} \end{align}$$ as expected.