I have a function:
$$f(x)=x^{2.2} + (1-x)^{2.2}$$
It is defined on the interval $[0,1]$. Minimum: $x=0.5, y=2*0.5^{2.2} = 2^{-1.2}$.
I want to find an inverse for it. Since the function has two "wings", inverse will be a family of two functions.
After some tinkering, I crafted something that looks like a very good approximation of an inverse function:
$$ g(x)=\frac{1}{2} \left( 1 \pm \left(\frac{x-2^{-1.2}}{1-2^{-1.2}}\right)^{0.504288} \right) $$
The number $0.504288 \approx 1 / 1.9829939 $ was found experimentally by substituting $g(x)$ into $f(x)$ and tweaking it to make it look as straight as possible:
$$ p(x) = f(g(x)) \approx x $$
Illustration: https://www.geogebra.org/graphing/zgzafsk4 (Might be a bit slow. Image substitute just in case.)
And now it bothers me if I'm just one step away from the exact solution.
So the question is: is it possible to express the exact power in $g(x)$ to get the equality $p(x) = x$ and what that value will be?
Update:
OK, people seem to focus on using usual numeric tools to get an arbitrarily close approximation. But this is not what the question was about. I have an approximation that is good enough for my purposes.
The question is about this particular special case. There is a power function added to reversed and shifted copy of itself.
Inverse function for a power function $y = x^{2.2}$ will be just the power reversed $x = y^{1/2.2}$. Since we adding an increasing and a decreasing function, the resulting curvature has changed. And it raises the suspicion that there might even be an exact power value, smaller than the original 2.2...
After writing this, I realized that the problem can be expressed in a different way. What I actually did is that I made an inverse function for an approximation of $f(x)$:
$$f_{approx}(x) = 2^{-1.2}+ (1-2^{-1.2}) (2x-1)^{1.983}$$
Now I made a different illustration: https://www.geogebra.org/graphing/msfzaqah (image).
There is also $h(x) = \frac{f_{approx}(x)}{f(x)}$ on the illustration. It clearly has some extremes, and changing the power just pushes them around. So the answer to the original question must be: this approximation doesn't fit the function exactly, so there is no exact number to put in there.
Now the question is: can the original function be expressed as something invertible? Same shape functions with an integer power are invertible. What stands in the way for a function with non-integer (fractional) power to be invertible too?
Note:
For powers 2 and 3, similar functions can be expressed in a clearly invertible form:
$$x^2+(1-x)^2 = \frac{1}{2} + \frac{1}{2}(2x - 1)^2$$
$$x^3+(1-x)^3 = \frac{1}{4} + \frac{3}{4}(2x - 1)^2$$
For the power of 4 and above WolframAlpha doesn't provide a form like this (single power), but still able to construct inverse functions, albeit more and more complicated.
Interesting that for powers of 2 and 3 the resulting function has the power of 2. And this fact seems to persist for higher powers - a sum of (2n+1) power functions will be a (2n) power function. But that's a digression.
Update 2:
I really appreciate the answers about Tailor series expansion. But I'm still concerned: is it the best we can do?


There may not be an exact expression in terms of elementary functions for the inverse $f^{-1}$ of a function $f$. However, there are several ways you can systematically approximate the inverse. One might be this. Choose several data points $(x,f(x))$ for your function $f$ (where the inverse is defined). Then, the inverse satisfies $(x,f^{-1}(x)) = (f(x),x)$. Once you find these data points (basically by flipping $x$ and $f(x)$), you can fit an accurate regression curve which closely approximates your data $(x,f^{-1}(x))$. If your function is a polynomial, you might choose a polynomial basis (e.g. {1,x,x^2,x^3,...x^n}). Then, your approximate inverse will have the form $$f^{-1}(x) = a_0+a_1x+a_2x^2 + \cdots a_nx^n.$$