Having some difficulty with this particular question: Let the pdf of $X$ be $f(x)=\lambda*x^{\lambda-1}$, $x=[0,1]$
Let $Y=-1/\log(X)$
Solving for inverse of $Y$ we get
$ \log(X)=-1/Y$ and $ X=e^{-1/Y}$
Now, $dY/dX=1/(x\log^2(X))$ $>0$ for $x$
Now for the inverse function $dX/dY=-e^{-1/Y}$
After substituting into the general formula for transformation of variables we receive
$f(y)=\lambda*e^{-1/y*(\lambda-1)}*e^{-1/y}=\lambda*e^{-\lambda/y}$, $y=[0,1]$
However the answer should be $f(y)=\lambda/y^2*e^{-\lambda/y}$ for $y=[0,\infty]$
I have no idea at all where the $1/y^2$ comes from. Would be very grateful to receive some help.
Kind regards,
Or you can do $X=e^{-1/Y}\implies \frac{dX}{dY}=\frac1{Y^2}e^{-1/Y}$.
The exponent is $-1/Y,$ not $-Y$.