Given a function $f$ is defined for integers $m$ and $n$ as given: $$f(mn) = f(m)\,f(n) - f(m+n) + 1001$$ where either $m$ or $n$ is equal to $1$, and $f(1) = 2$.
The problem itself is to prove that $$f(x) = f(x-1) + 1001$$ in order to find the value of $f(9999)$.
As such, what I've already tried is:
Replacing $n$ as $1$ and $m$ as $x$, and trying to solve from there.
$$f(x) = f(1) * f(x) - f(x+1) + 1001$$ $$f(x) = 2 * f(x) - f(x+1) + 1001,$$
Although I'm not sure how I should continue from here, it did occur that the negative sign could be manipulated in some way, but I'm fairly certain that $-f(x+1)$, cannot be rewritten as $f(-x-1)$, or anything of the sorts.
So if anyone has any thoughts or insight as how I should proceed, it would be greatly appreciated.
You got $$f(x)=2f(x)-f(x+1)+1001$$Now, let's find $f(x+1)$ using $f(x)$:$$f(x)=2f(x)-f(x+1)+1001\iff f(x+1)=f(x)+1001$$Now, let $y=x+1, x=y-1$ you get $$f(y)=f(y-1)+1001$$
(Note, both $x$ and $y$ are just names of the variables, so if it is more convenient to you, you can rewrite the final line using $x$ instead of $y$)