Suppose I have a sphere where $\varphi = 0$ is vertical, so I can have lines of latitude where $\varphi = \frac{\pi}{2}$ is pointing to the "equator".
My question is, suppose I tilt my coordinate system so that $\varphi' = 0$ is pointing towards some $\varphi_0$. How do I find the latitude in the original coordinate system when I'm given $\varphi'$ and $\theta'$ in the new coordinate system?
I've been guessing things like $$\cos(\varphi_0 + \varphi'\cos(\theta'))$$
but that's not correct. Any ideas?
Edit: Added pic for clarity. The green dots are at the same $\varphi'$, but at different $\theta'$.
Since the coordinate system is just being tilted, it should be true that since $\varphi'=0$ corresponds to some angle $\varphi_0$, $\varphi'=-\varphi_0$ corresponds to the $0$ angle, and $\varphi'=\frac{\pi}{2}-\varphi_0$ corresponds to the angle $\frac{\pi}{2}.$ I'm assuming from the way you formatted your question that you're letting $\varphi$ represent the polar angle, in which case, $r\cos\varphi=z$ in the original coordinate system (where $z$ denotes the height), and $r\cos\varphi'=z'$ in the new coordinate system. My guess is that your latitude in the original coordinate system can be expressed solely as a function of $\varphi'$ rather than needing both $\varphi'$ and $\theta'$, and that such function is
$$\alpha\cos(\varphi'+\varphi_0)$$
where $0<\alpha<r$, and $r$ is the radius of the sphere. $\alpha$ is a constant by which you can scale the expression to get different lines of latitude. If I misunderstood anything about your question, please let me know!