This is for a homework assignment, I'm really only confused about one step within the problem though.
Question: Suppose $X \sim N(400, \sigma^2)$ where $\sigma$ is the standard deviation. If we have $P(380 \leq X \leq 420) = 0.99$, what is the standard deviation $\sigma$? (Hint: Use standardization)
So the class came up with this answer:
1) $z = \frac{x - 400}{\sigma} \sim N(0,1)$
2) $P(\frac{-20}{\sigma} \leq z \leq \frac{20}{\sigma}) = 0.99$
3) $1 - 0.99 = 0.01$
4) $\frac{0.01}{2} = 0.005$
5) $1 - 0.005 = 0.995$
6) $\frac{20}{\sigma} = z_{0.995} = 2.576$
7) Solving for $\sigma$ gives you $7.76$
I understand everything except for steps 3, 4, and 5. Mainly why do we decide to subtract $1 - 0.99$ and then why do we randomly decide to divide by $2$? Finally, why would we want to subtract it by $1$ again?
Q-function is defined as $Q(x) = \frac{1}{\sqrt{2\pi}} \int_x^\infty \exp\left(-\frac{u^2}{2}\right) \, du$
$P(−\frac{20}{σ}≤z≤\frac{20}{σ})=0.99$
It implies $\frac{1}{\sqrt{2\pi}} \int_{−\frac{20}{σ}}^{\frac{20}{σ}} \exp\left(-\frac{u^2}{2}\right) \, du = 0.99$
As normal distribution is symmetric, $\frac{1}{\sqrt{2\pi}} \int_{0}^{\frac{20}{σ}} \exp\left(-\frac{u^2}{2}\right) \, du = 0.99 / 2 = 0.495$
Also $\frac{1}{\sqrt{2\pi}} \int_{0}^{\infty} \exp\left(-\frac{u^2}{2}\right) \, du = 0.5$
So $\frac{1}{\sqrt{2\pi}} \int_{\frac{20}{σ}}^{\infty} \exp\left(-\frac{u^2}{2}\right) \, du = 0.5-0.495 = 0.005$
Then from table of Q-function you can find $σ$.
Hope my answer clarifies your doubt.