I am trying to probabilistically model a problem, a simple version of which is as below:
I have 100 participants for a lucky draw contest. Let us name them $a_{1}, a_{2},...a_{100}.$
Suppose that only the 10 participants namely $a_{1}, a_{2},...a_{10}$ are the possible winners and others are just participating for fun.
The lucky draw is as follows:
I will select each of the 100 participants independently with probability $p$ and if, in the selected set of people, there is only 1 participant from the set $\mathcal{D}=\{a_{1}, a_{2},...a_{10}\}$,then that participant is a winner.
I will repeat this procedure (which I call test) $T$ times. and I call my experiment to be a success if $a_{1}, a_{2}$ and $a_{3}$ are the winners after the $T$ tests.
Let,
$L_{i}=\# \text { tests containing } i \text { and no other element of } \mathcal{D}, \text { for } i=a_{1}, \ldots, a_{10}$
$\mathbb{P}(\text { success })=\mathbb{P}\left(L_{1} \neq 0,L_{2} \neq 0, L_{3} \neq 0\right)$
How can I compute this probability of success? The problem I am facing is since $L_{1},L_{2},L_{3}$ are not independent, I am not able to simplify the expression further?
The probability that $a_1$ is "a winner" in a particular test if selected and the other nine are not with probability $p(1-p)^9$.
The same is true of $a_2$ and $a_3$ and these are mutually exclusive events for that particular test, so we can add their probabilities.
So over all $T$ tests:
So by inclusion-exclusion $P(L_1=0 \text{ or } L_2=0 \text{ or } L_3=0) = 3\left(1- p(1-p)^9\right)^T - 3 \left(1- 2p(1-p)^9\right)^T + \left(1- 3p(1-p)^9\right)^T$
and thus $P(L_1\not =0, L_2\not =0, L_3\not =0) = 1- 3\left(1- p(1-p)^9\right)^T + 3 \left(1- 2p(1-p)^9\right)^T - \left(1- 3p(1-p)^9\right)^T$
This is an increasing function of $T$ but not of $p$. For example