Let $X$ be a scheme and suppose that $X$ admits a finite open covering $(U_i)_{i\in I }$ of affine schemes, such that $X_i\cap X_j$ is an affine scheme, for all $i,j\in I$. In this case is it true that $X$ is an affine scheme?
2026-03-26 12:57:56.1774529876
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Finite union of affine schemes
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Here's another (horrible!) example: the union
$$ \mathbb{A}^2_R \setminus \{ (0,0) \} = \operatorname{Spec}(R[x, y, x^{-1}]) \cup \operatorname{Spec}(R[x, y, y^{-1}]) $$
is not an affine scheme (despite being a subscheme of an affine scheme!). The intersection of the two patches is
$$\operatorname{Spec}(R[x, y, x^{-1}]) \cap \operatorname{Spec}(R[x, y, y^{-1}]) = \operatorname{Spec}(R[x, y, x^{-1}, y^{-1}]) $$
This is not true. Any projective space $\Bbb P_k^n$ for a field $k$ gives a counterexample.