Is False? Since $2 \equiv 2\,(\text{mod}\,4)$ and $2 \times 3 = 6\,$ then $\,6 ≠ 2$.
This is a proof by counter-example?
It seemed too easy.
That's wrong.
So;
a ≡ 2 (mod 4) = 4q + 2 and b = 2q + 1
ab = (4q + 2)(2q + 1) = 8q + 2q + 2q + 2
then ab = 16q + 2 which is 2 mod 16
$6\neq2$ is correct, but the task is not saying that $ab$ will equal $2$, it says that it will have the remainder of $2$ when divided by $4$, and since $6=1\cdot 4 + 2$, you have $$6\equiv 2 \mod 4$$
so no, your counterexample is not correct.
Hint 1:
The statement is not false
Hint 2:
Fill in the gaps: