To Prove: For all real numbers $x$ and $y$ there is a real number $z$ such that $x + z = y − z$.
Proof:
$x+z=y-z \Rightarrow y-x=2z$. Since $y$ and $x$ are real numbers, $2z$ is also real. Therefore $z$ is real.
Is that good enough?
To Prove: For all real numbers $x$ and $y$ there is a real number $z$ such that $x + z = y − z$.
Proof:
$x+z=y-z \Rightarrow y-x=2z$. Since $y$ and $x$ are real numbers, $2z$ is also real. Therefore $z$ is real.
Is that good enough?
The proof you have written is really the "scratch work" you should do before writing the proof down. In particular, the proof itself should not begin with the assumption that $x+z=y-z$. (What is $z$? It hasn't been defined. How do you know such $z$ exists? That's what you're trying to prove, after all.)
So your "scratch work" should look like:
If $x+z=y-z$, then $2z=y-x$, so $z=\frac{1}{2}(y-x)$.
And your proof should look like:
Proof: Let $x$ and $y$ be real numbers. Let $z=\frac{1}{2}(y-x)$, and note that $z$ is a real number. Then... [here you should verify that $x+z=y-z$].