Let $m$ and $n$ be positive integers. If $10m\mid 21n$, then $10\mid n$.
This is what I've done so far:
If $10m\mid 21n$ then $21n = (10m)k$.
Since $m$ and $k$ are just integers, let $m\cdot k= p$. Therefore, $21n=10p$ so $10\mid 21n$.
Since $GCD(10,21)=1$, by Euclid's lemma $10\mid n$.
Any advice? Do you think my proof is correct?
Thanks!