As the title states, I'm currently trying to compute (or "prove") the Fourier transform of the double exponential function (or Laplace function), that is
$$\int_{-\infty}^{\infty}e^{i\xi x}e^{-\lambda|x|}\,dx = \int_{-\infty}^{0}e^{i\xi x}e^{\lambda x}\,dx+\int_{0}^{\infty}e^{i\xi x}e^{-\lambda x}\,dx$$
which clearly leads to the following result after a few simple integration rules:
$$\left[\frac{e^{i\xi x}e^{\lambda x}}{i\xi+\lambda}\right]_{-\infty}^{0}+\left[\frac{e^{i\xi x}e^{-\lambda x}}{i\xi-\lambda}\right]_{0}^{\infty}=\left(\frac{1}{i\xi+\lambda}-\frac{\lim_{x\to-\infty}e^{i\xi x}e^{\lambda x}}{i\xi+\lambda}\right)+\left(\frac{\lim_{x\to\infty} e^{i\xi x}e^{-\lambda x}}{i\xi-\lambda}-\frac{1}{i\xi-\lambda}\right).$$
Now, it's quite obvious that
$$\lim_{x\to-\infty}e^{\lambda x}\to 0\quad \text{and} \quad \lim_{x\to\infty} e^{-\lambda x}\to 0.$$
However, I'm struggling with interpreting what
$$\lim_{x\to-\infty}e^{i\xi x}\quad \text{and}\quad \lim_{x\to\infty}e^{i\xi x}$$
lead to since the textbook that I'm using seems to neglect this detail and simply reaches the result of
$$\frac{2\lambda}{\lambda^{2}+\xi^{2}},$$
which is naturally a Cauchy function.
Therefore, what would I do with $e^{i\xi x}$ when computing the two respective limits shown above for the definite integral? Any kind of help would be highly appreciated.
There is no $\lim_{x\to\infty}e^{i\xi x}$. But that doesn't matter. The function $x\mapsto e^{i\xi x}$ is bounded, so since $\lim_{x\to\infty}e^{-\lambda x}=0$ then also $\lim_{x\to\infty} e^{i\xi x}e^{-\lambda x}=0$.
The general principle is that if $\lim_{x\to a}f(x)=0$ and $g(x)$ is bounded as $x\to a$, then $\lim_{x\to a}f(x)g(x)=0$.