Find $f(x)$ given that it satisfies the equation $f(x) = x^2 + \int_0^{\frac{\pi}{2}} f(t) \sin(x+1) dt$
My attempt:
Let $\int_0^{\pi/2}f(t)dt=c$
So
$$f(x)=x^2+c\sin(x+1)$$
Integrate w.r.t. $x$ from $0$ to $\pi/2$
$$\int_0^{\pi/2}f(x)dx=\int_0^{\pi/2}x^2dx+c\int_0^{\pi/2}\sin(x+1)dx$$
$$c=\frac{x^3}{3}\bigg|_0^{\frac{\pi}{2}}-c(\cos(x+1))\bigg|_0^{\frac{\pi}{2}}$$
$$c=\frac{\pi^3}{24}+c(\sin(1)+\cos(1))$$
$$\implies c=\frac{\pi^3}{24(1-\sin1-\cos1)}$$
Plugging it back we obtain:
$$f(x)=x^2+\frac{\pi^3\sin(x+1)}{24(1-\sin1-\cos1)}$$
This however doesn't seem to match with the given answer:
$$f(x) = x^2-\frac {2(3\pi^2-4\pi-8)}{\pi^2-4}\sin x-\frac {\pi^3-16}{\pi^2-4} \cos x$$
I have tried expanding $\sin(x+1)$ in my expression but it didn't lead to anything.
Are these expressions equivalent? If yes, how do I inter-convert them?
EDIT
The following solution was given:

As suggested by Jack, the correcte IQ is $$f(x)=x^2+\int_{0}^{\pi/2} \sin(x+t) f(t) dt~~~~(1)$$ $$\implies f(x)=x^2+A \sin x+ B\cos x~~~~(2)$$, such that $$A=\int_{0}^{\pi/2}cos t f(t) dt~~~~(3)$$ $$B=\int_{0}^{\pi/2} \sin t f(t) dt~~~~(4)$$ Inserting (2) in (3) and (4), we get $A,B$ as vreported by the OP.